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THE GOSPEL OBSERVER
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"Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations...teaching
them to observe all that I commanded you; and lo, I am with you
always, even to the end of the age" (Matthew 28:19,20).
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March 6, 2005
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Was Jesus Literally Forsaken?
by Doy Moyer
Did the Father literally forsake Jesus at the cross? The
Aramaic phrase spoken by Jesus on the cross, translated "My
God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?" is often taken to mean
just that (Matt. 27:46). Generally, the idea is that since
Jesus was made to be sin on our behalf (2 Cor. 5:21), then it
was necessary for Him to suffer a form of spiritual death --
separation from the Father. This was the penalty paid by Jesus.
Proof of this is seen in the phrase under question, along with
2 Corinthians 5:21.
Granted, a brief look at the phrase, spoken at that
particular time, lends itself to the conclusion that Jesus
really was forsaken by the Father. It perhaps makes sense to
think that the penalty Jesus had to pay on our behalf is a
temporary spiritual separation from the Father. So we reason.
But this conclusion is really based upon two things: 1) the
phrase under question, and 2) our own reasoning and speculation
as to how Jesus bore our sins. Other than this, the Bible
nowhere says in any explicit sense that Jesus was forsaken. I
believe it is just the opposite.
My conviction is that Jesus was not literally forsaken by
the Father as He was on the cross. I want to list a few items
that ought to be considered in coming to a conclusion about
this issue. As I do this, I realize that not every question can
be answered. I do not pretend to know or understand everything
that happened between Jesus and the Father. All of the workings
of deity are not made known to us; and we should be very
careful about speculating about these things (e.g., saying that
the 3-hour darkness must have signified God's withdrawal of
fellowship from Jesus; such is pure speculation). I think we
can consider a few points about this, and even give some
thought as to how this has any application to us. So, here
goes.
1. The consequence of the position is not very attractive.
Think about it. Jesus came to do the will of the Father, which
involved His suffering and death on the cross (Heb. 10:5-10).
Jesus carried out the Father's will with absolute perfection.
Not a single instance of sin can be named in His life. And in
the context of speaking about His death, Jesus said, "And He
who sent Me is with Me; He has not left Me alone, for I always
do the things that are pleasing to Him" (Jn. 8:29). Now if the
Father did actually forsake Jesus on the cross, then this means
that it is possible for God to forsake one who has done
everything asked of him. That's not a very pleasant thought; I
don't think we can afford to think of God in this way. If God
the Father could forsake One who never sinned, what about those
of us who have sinned and been forgiven? This does not prove
the case, but it is a consequence to be reckoned with.
2. Paying the price for our sins did not necessitate
spiritual separation of the Father and the Son. In response to
the first point, someone might think, "But Jesus was paying the
price for sin; doesn't that change things?" The question is,
did Jesus become guilty of those sins, or was he paying a
redemptive price for the sins? If He became guilty of the sins,
then yes, separation from the Father would have occurred. But
if not, and He was simply paying a price of redemption, then
spiritual separation was not necessary.
In paying the price for our sins, Jesus did for us what we
could not do for ourselves. If the price was temporary
separation from the Father, then the sacrifice only did what we
all have already experienced. Since all have sinned, all have
been spiritually separated from God. If Jesus came to do that,
then He only experienced what we have already suffered. It
should be obvious that Jesus did not pay for sins in the way I
would have had to pay for those sins myself. Thus, the price
Jesus paid was not:
a. Temporary separation. We've already suffered that. If
this is the sacrifice made by Jesus, then we have already paid
the price.
b. Eternal separation. That's obvious enough, since Jesus
is in heaven (Col. 3:1). But if He died separated from the
Father, how could He have gone to Paradise (Luke 23:43)? At
what point did Jesus lose fellowship with the Father; and at
what point did He regain it? Nothing in the Bible indicates
either of these. To say that Jesus was abandoned by the Father
demands speculation as to when He was forsaken, and when He was
taken back into fellowship. Lack of passages on these points
should prevent us from such speculation.
3. When we look at the various passages that speak of the
price paid by Jesus, they point to the blood shed by Jesus as a
sin-offering. Jesus is the lamb slain before the foundation of
the world (Rev. 13:8). It is with His precious blood that we
are redeemed (1 Pet. 1:18-19). It is through the shedding of
that blood that we are forgiven (Eph. 1:7). I believe this is
the import of the idea that Jesus was "made sin" (2 Cor. 5:21),
and that He became "a curse" for us. He was not literally sin,
but He was made a sin-offering. Jesus did not become guilty of
the sins anymore than the animals involved in the Old Testament
sacrifices became literally guilty. The shedding of the blood
became the means of forgiveness and the way by which the wrath
of God was appeased. In contrast to the animals, Jesus came to
do the will of God. "By this will we have been sanctified
through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all"
(Heb. 10:10). None of the passages indicate that the sacrifice
of Jesus included a spiritual separation from the Father, or a
forsaking of the Son by the Father. There is no question that
Jesus suffered spiritually and emotionally. But, it appears
that His greatest emotional pain was being experienced in the
garden before He actually went to the cross (Luke 22:44). These
passages show that the Father aided Him through His angels.
Jesus was in pain, even though not abandoned.
4. Now, what about the phrase itself: "My God, My God, why
have You forsaken Me"? The key to the use of the phrase by
Jesus is to be found in its source. This phrase begins the
well-known Psalm 22. By quoting the first line of the Psalm,
Jesus was appropriating the message of the Psalm to Himself. A
look at this psalm shows that the one who uttered this phrase
was not literally forsaken by God. Note the following:
a. The psalm can be broken down into two major parts: 1.
Forsaken by God (vv. 1-21), and 2. Delivered by God (vv.
22-31). The psalm begins with the desperate phrase quoted by
Jesus, but as it proceeds it expresses a victorious assurance
of deliverance.
b. In the psalm, the quoted phrase does not intend to
express the idea that God has literally and actually forsaken
anyone. The forsaking is in appearance, not in reality. The
psalm fits quite well with all of the events that were
happening when Jesus was on the cross. We should not see the
words of Jesus on the cross in a vacuum, for other parts of the
psalm fit with the events of the cross; other prophecies are
fulfilled (e.g., vv. 7-8, 16-18). Verses 7-8 express exactly
what happened with those who mocked and sneered at Jesus. They
did not think that God would deliver Jesus because He appeared
so despised and smitten by God. It was the people who esteemed
Jesus to be smitten and afflicted by God (Isa. 53:4).
c. The psalm shows that, in reality, the one uttering the
cry has been heard. Verse 22 marks a change from defeat to
victory. And notice verse 24: "For He has not despised nor
abhorred the affliction of the afflicted; nor has He hidden His
face from him; but when he cried to Him for help, He heard."
d. Thus the phrase uttered by Jesus, taken from this
psalm, was not intended to convey the idea that the Father
actually forsook Him. It did convey the idea that He appeared
forsaken, but if the hearers knew the psalm from which Jesus
quoted, they would also need to think of the victory expressed
in the latter part of it. And I find it interesting that just
before Jesus "gave up His spirit," He said, "It is finished."
This statement coincides with the last verse of Psalm 22,
referring to the fact that God has "performed it," i.e., that
God has carried out justice and finished the work of providing
for salvation for all of mankind (vv. 25-31). In dying on the
cross, Jesus carried out this work. He finished the work that
God had promised and foretold so long before.
5. When Jesus uttered the cry, "My God, My God, why have
You forsaken Me?" He was not asking for an answer. If we take
it to literally mean that God forsook Jesus, then we would also
have to take it to mean that Jesus didn't know why. He was
referring to Psalm 22 as the fulfillment of the prophecy. The
use of that phrase in the psalm itself does not lend anything
to the concept that Jesus literally was forsaken. Rather, it
points to the victorious nature of God's deliverance in the
midst of a time that appeared so dismal and forlorn. Jesus was
not forsaken. He was simply awaiting the deliverance that He
knew the Father would provide. Now if one uses Jesus' words on
the cross to say that the Father literally forsook Jesus, it
would need to be proved that Jesus intended those words to
convey something different than the way it is used in the
Psalm.
Is There An Application For Us?
This is not just an academic exercise. The psalm, and its
use by Jesus, has a tremendous meaning for us as God's people.
What are some lessons we can learn and apply?
1. When times are so difficult that it seems no one cares,
we have assurance that God is there for us. We are not promised
that everything on this earth will be free of difficulties, but
we are promised that God will never leave us nor forsake us
(Heb. 13:5-6). This psalm can be of great comfort to us when
things do not appear to be going too well. We can expect God's
deliverance.
2. God hears and answers our cries. Sometimes we cry to
God out of despair and wonder if He is really listening. The
answer of this psalm is a resounding "yes." God hears and will
deliver, even if we feel alone.
3. It is okay to express our desperate feelings to God. He
wants us to cast our cares upon Him (1 Pet. 5:6-7).
4. Because of what God accomplished through Jesus, we are
blessed beyond all of our imaginations. So now we can praise
God, be satisfied, worship Him, and tell the coming generations
what marvelous works He has performed. Because of what God has
done, we have a great victory in Christ (Rom. 8:31ff).
I realize that not everyone will agree with my brief
analysis of the phrase and the psalm. But I think that it is
very inadequate to just look at the phrase as Jesus was on the
cross and not give some consideration to the psalm from which
it comes. The psalm seems so entirely messianic that we cannot
overlook it in our interpretation of the phrase.
I hope that these thoughts will encourage further study.
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MYRTLE STREET CHURCH OF CHRIST
1022 Myrtle Street
Denham Springs, LA 70726
(225) 664-8208
Sunday: 9:15 AM, 10:00 AM, 4:00 PM
Wednesday: 7:00 PM
evangelist/editor: Tom Edwards (225) 667-4520
e-mail: tedwards@onemain.com
web site: http://home.onemain.com/~tedwards/go
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